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Fall Semester 2014 Exam; Earth Science

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

By understanding how natural forces affect the environment, Earth scientists can
a.
better predict natural disasters.
c.
change human nature.
b.
prevent natural disasters.
d.
change the course of history.
 

 2. 

The study of meteorology involves the study of
a.
meteors.
c.
outer space.
b.
climate.
d.
animals.
 

 3. 

Earth science is the scientific study of
a.
chemical equations.
c.
Earth and its universe.
b.
health and nutrition.
d.
human behavior.
 

 4. 

An idea that has been tested repeatedly and gains acceptance is called a
a.
hypothesis.
c.
theory.
b.
law.
d.
controlled experiment.
 

 5. 

What are the four main branches of Earth science?
a.
chemistry, physics, biology, zoology
b.
geography, astrology, phrenology, psychology
c.
geology, oceanography, astronomy, meteorology
d.
sophistry, philosophy, anthropology, neurology
 

 6. 

Which of the following scientific ideas has NOT had a far-reaching impact on society?
a.
theory of plate tectonics
c.
theory of plate technology
b.
quantum mechanics
d.
theory of evolution
 

 7. 

Earth’s circumference is about 40,000 km, and its shape is
a.
an oval.
c.
a perfect sphere.
b.
an oblate spheroid.
d.
a perfect circle.
 

 8. 

Plants capture and transfer solar energy in a process called
a.
oikos.
c.
transpiration.
b.
ecology.
d.
photosynthesis.
 

 9. 

The largest ecosystem on Earth is the
a.
continents.
c.
oceans.
b.
atmosphere.
d.
biosphere.
 

 10. 

In general, how do ecosystems react to change?
a.
They restore balance.
c.
They collapse.
b.
They become disrupted.
d.
They become smaller.
 

 11. 

How does the transfer of energy throughout an ecosystem begin?
a.
Humans create pollution.
b.
Plants capture solar energy through photosynthesis.
c.
The energy store on Earth is depleted.
d.
Producers eat consumers.
 

 12. 

Who was the first to explain the effects of gravity in his law of gravitation?
a.
Mohorovicic
c.
Moho
b.
Oikos
d.
Isaac Newton
 

 13. 

Which of the following is NOT one of the major processes in which energy and matter repeatedly move through a series of reservoirs?
a.
carbon cycle
c.
biocycle
b.
nitrogen cycle
d.
phosphorus cycle
 

 14. 

Transpiration is one part of the
a.
ecosystem.
c.
hydrosphere.
b.
water cycle.
d.
biosphere.
 

 15. 

What are counted in an atom to determine mass number?
a.
neutrons
c.
protons and electrons
b.
protons and neutrons
d.
electrons
 

 16. 

What is the atomic number of an element?
a.
the number of protons and neutrons
c.
the number of neutrons
b.
the number of valence electrons
d.
the number of protons
 

 17. 

Elements are arranged on the periodic table
a.
in order of molecular numbers.
c.
alphabetically.
b.
in order of atomic numbers.
d.
randomly.
 

 18. 

What forces hold together the atoms in molecules?
a.
chemical mixtures
c.
gravity fields
b.
magnetic fields
d.
chemical bonds
 

 19. 

How many atoms of sodium (Na) are there in the formula for table salt NaCl?
a.
2
c.
1
b.
3
d.
0
 

 20. 

Density, color, and boiling point are examples of
a.
chemical descriptors.
c.
physical properties.
b.
chemical properties.
d.
physical science.
 

 21. 

Where are electrons found in atoms?
a.
in the electron sphere
c.
in the atomic ring cycle
b.
in the electron zone
d.
in the electron cloud
 

 22. 

Chemical properties of matter are characteristics
a.
of subatomic particles that can be observed.
b.
that can be observed without changing substances.
c.
that describe reactions between substances that produce new substances.
d.
that can only be observed through experimentation.
 

 23. 

Physical properties of matter are characteristics that
a.
can be observed without changing the composition of substances.
b.
describe reactions between substances.
c.
describe reactions between unreactive substances.
d.
can be observed only after changing the composition of substances.
 

 24. 

What makes an atom an isotope?
a.
having a different number of protons than other atoms of the same element
b.
having a different number of neutrons than other atoms of the same element
c.
having the same number of neutrons as other atoms of the same element
d.
having the same number of protons and electrons
 

 25. 

What are the two main groups of minerals?
a.
metallic and nonmetallic
c.
rock-forming and powder
b.
silicate and nonsilicate
d.
carbonate and silicate
 

 26. 

What is radioactivity?
a.
another form of magnetism
b.
unstable atomic nuclei decay over time, releasing particles and energy
c.
stable atomic nuclei decay over time, releasing particles and energy
d.
contamination of organisms and minerals
 

 27. 

The color of a mineral in powdered form is called the mineral’s
a.
luster.
c.
cleavage.
b.
streak.
d.
fracture.
 

 28. 

Light that is reflected from a mineral’s surface is called
a.
luster.
c.
radioactivity.
b.
steak.
d.
refraction.
 

 29. 

The name for this type of rock means “changed form.”
a.
igneous
c.
metamorphic
b.
sedimentary
d.
sandstone
 

 30. 

Most metamorphic rock forms as a result of
a.
foliation.
c.
chemical contact.
b.
magma flows.
d.
regional metamorphism.
 

 31. 

What type of rock texture results when extreme pressure causes minerals in metamorphic rock to realign, or when minerals separate out into dark and light bands?
a.
mafic
c.
felsic
b.
foliated
d.
nonfoliated
 

 32. 

In regional metamorphism, the change in rocks is the result of
a.
changes in temperature and pressure over a large area.
b.
limited occurrences in a single region.
c.
activity on one continent.
d.
changes that take place only above or only below Earth’s surface.
 

 33. 

Which of the following is NOT an example of an extrusion?
a.
volcano
c.
volcanic neck
b.
batholith
d.
lava plateau
 

 34. 

The series of changes that describes how geologic forces cause rock to change from one type to another is known as
a.
Bowen’s reaction series.
c.
the rock cycle.
b.
Mohs hardness scale.
d.
fractional crystallization.
 

 35. 

The age of an object in relation to the ages of other objects is
a.
absolute age.
c.
relative age.
b.
comparative age.
d.
relational age.
 

 36. 

A fault or body of rock is younger than any other body of rock it cuts through according to the law of
a.
crosscutting relationships.
c.
uniformitarianism.
b.
superposition.
d.
averages.
 

 37. 

Carbon-14 is an isotope
a.
formed by radioactive decay.
b.
used to date objects less than 70,000 years old.
c.
used to date objects over 6,000 years old.
d.
that cannot be used to date objects.
 

 38. 

Index fossils found in rock layers in different areas of the world indicate that the rock layers
a.
formed during the same period of time.
b.
formed during different periods of time.
c.
are still forming.
d.
never fully formed.
 

 39. 

The way fossils are formed in very dry places is called
a.
mummification.
c.
imprinting.
b.
petrification.
d.
sedimentation.
 

 40. 

Why is radioactive decay used to determine the absolute age of rocks?
a.
Radioactive decay cannot be used to determine the age of a rock.
b.
Radioactive decay happens very quickly.
c.
Radioactive decay does not happen at a constant rate.
d.
Radioactive decay happens at a relatively constant rate.
 

 41. 

What is a gastrolith?
a.
a stone inside a fish
c.
a gas that became a stone
b.
a stone that was inside a dinosaur
d.
fossilized waste
 

 42. 

How many half-lifes would be necessary for a sample of parent isotopes to decay to the point that only one-fourth of the sample is composed of parent isotopes?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 

 43. 

What is the crack in the ocean floor through which magma rises?
a.
a ridge
c.
a rift
b.
a rip
d.
a rent
 

 44. 

Tectonic plates can include
a.
only asthenosphere.
c.
only continental crust.
b.
only oceanic crust.
d.
both oceanic and continental crust.
 

 45. 

An example of a transform boundary is the
a.
San Andreas Fault in California.
b.
Nazca plate on the west coast of South America.
c.
Eurasian plate at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.
d.
island arc of Japan.
 

 46. 

The force exerted by the leading edge of a subducting plate is
a.
convection.
c.
ridge push.
b.
tectonic plate drag.
d.
slab pull.
 

 47. 

The study of paleomagnetism was key in proving Wegener’s hypothesis because
a.
it provided evidence of sea-floor spreading.
b.
it proved that fossils in Africa and South America were identical.
c.
it indicated that tropical swamps covered areas that are now cold.
d.
it showed that mountains were formed by continental drift.
 

 48. 

Panthalassa was
a.
the supercontinent that formed before Pangaea.
b.
one of the continents that formed from Pangaea.
c.
the large ocean that surrounded Pangaea.
d.
a body of water cut into the eastern edge of Pangaea.
 

 49. 

The splitting of Pangaea into two continents is part of
a.
the process of accretion.
c.
the process of slab pull.
b.
a convection cell.
d.
the supercontinent cycle.
 

 50. 

The most conclusive proof for continental drift was provided by
a.
the coastlines of continents on a map.
b.
evidence of sea-floor spreading.
c.
identical fossils found on two separate continents.
d.
changes in climatic patterns.
 



 
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